Originally Posted by
Guisslapp
Not necessarily. He may have or he may not have, but the fact that he hasn't reported it (to the DOJ, I assume you mean) doesn't prove anything at this point. Had he alerted the DOJ, that would be very telling, though.
We don't know what level of weight he put on the statement, and contrary to Cartek's misreading of the conjunction in a statute, he didn't have a duty to immediately report it to the DOJ.
The context of it all will likely be known very soon when Comey testifies.