Let me explain what I mean using a suggested tree of human evolution found at this website: http://www.amonline.net.au/human_evolution/tree.htm
Consider Homo ergaster. Homo ergaster is the precusor to both Homo erectus and Homo heidelbergensis. However, before Homo erectus or Homo heidelbergensis could have come about, Homo ergaster would have had to have evolved into them. Namely, if Homo ergaster and Homo heidelbergensis were considered to have lived in the same time period, then they could not have lived in the same living environment. A separation, a couple of which you have enumerated as being viable options, could result in their being of the same time period. However, more likely is the case that both Homo erectus and Homo heidelbergensis would evolved around the same "time" in the sense that one would be the direct descendent in the same environment of Homo ergaster and the other would be a derivative based in a different living environment.
The dating for Homo heidelbergensis ranges from 600,000 to 250,000 years ago, which doesn't compare to the 195,000 date given in the article.... so I'm not really sure how "modern man" and his precursor would have co-existed. However, the only scenario for this type of situation would be that a subset of Homo heidelbergensis would have moved to a different environment, evolved into modern man, while another subset did not move and evolve, staying roughly the same (such that we would classify them as the same: Homo heidelbergensis). Then, they could co-exist in the same time period but clearly would not have evolved in the same living environment. To claim both the same living environment and time period seems in direct violation of natural selection.
As such, the article seems relatively vague on the topic and to some degree misleading, especially in representing the position of evolution, IMO.
Daniel